MCQ on Environmental Biotechnology

1. Environmental biotechnology involves

a) the use of microbes to clean up the environment
b) bioremediation
c) the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

2. The use of living microorganism to degrade environmental pollutants is called

a) mycoremediation
b) nanoremediation
c) bioremediation
d) all of these

Answer: c) bioremediation

3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills

a) Bacillus subtilis
b) Pseudomonas putida
c) Pseudomonas denitrificans
d) Bacillus denitrificans

Answer: b) Pseudomonas putida

4. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called

a)bioextraction
b) microbial extraction
c) biofiltration
d) bioleaching

Answer: d) bioleaching

5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally occurring microbes is called

a) ex situ bioremediation
b) Intrinsic bioremediation
c) extrinsic bioremediation
d) none of these

Answer: b) Intrinsic bioremediation

6. Ex situ bioremediation involves the 

a) degradation of pollutants by microbes directly
b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
c) degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
d) none of these

Answer: b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation

7. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes

a) Trichoderma sp
b) Aspergillus niger
c) Pseudomonas putida
d) all of these

Answer: b) Aspergillus niger

8. Microorganisms remove metals by

a) adsorption and complexation
b) adsorption and precipitation
c) adsorption and volatilization
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

9. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of

a) organic wastes
b) hydrocarbons
c) heavy metals
d) all of these

Answer: c) heavy metals

10. A non directed physico chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and microbial surface is called

a) Biotransformation
b) bioconversion
c) biosorption
d) biomining

Answer: c) biosorption

MCQ on Electrophoresis | Types of Electrophoresis.

1. The technique electrophoresis, for the separation of charged molecules was developed by 

a) Tswett

b) Svedberg

c) Tiselius

d) Sanger

Answer: c) Tiselius

2. In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards

a) cathode or positive electrode

b) anode or negative electrode

c) cathode or negative electrode

d) anode or positive electrode

Answer: d) anode or positive electrode

3. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on

a) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules

b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules

c) shape and size of the molecule

d) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules

Answer: b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules

4. Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?

a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the current

b) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current

c) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium

d) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds

Answer: a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to current

5. Electrophoresis cell or electrophoresis apparatus consists of

a) power pack and electrophoresis unit

b) Electrophoresis unit and DNA separator

c) buffer chamber and Electrophoresis unit

d) Gel, buffer chamber and power pack

Answer: a) power pack and electrophoresis unit

6. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is

a) Agar

b) Polyacrylamide

c) Agarose

d) All of the above

Answer: c) Agarose

7. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments

a) AGE

b) PAGE

c) PFGE

d) SDS-PAGE

Answer: c) PFGE

8. What is the role of SDS in SDS-PAGE?

a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge

b) imparting overall negative charge to the protein

c) imparting equal mass to all proteins

d) protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge

Answer: a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge

9. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on

a) molecular weight

b) shape

c) charge

d) all of the above

Answer: a) molecular weight

10. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is

a) AGE

b) PFGE

c) 2D-PAGE

d) SDS-PAGE

Answer: c) 2D-PAGE

5 Types of Electrophoresis

1. SDS-PAGE
2. Native-PAGE
3. Isoelectric Focusing
4. Capillary Electrophoresis
5. Band Detection

MCQ on DNA Extraction (BioTechnology)

1. For isolating DNA from plants, the most suitable method is

a) CTAB method
b) SDS-phenol extraction
c) SDS-proteinase K treatment
d) all of these

Answer: a) CTAB method

2. Which of the following reagent is commonly used for bacterial cell wall lysis

a) CTAB
b) phenol extraction
c) lysozyme
d) penicillin

Answer: c) lysozyme

3. DNA extraction from plant tissues are difficult due to

a) presence of large amount of DNA
b )presence of large amount of RNA along with DNA
c) both a and b
d )presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides

Answer: d ) presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides

4. The action of Cetyl Trimethyl Ammonium Bromide (CTAB) in DNA extraction from plant tissue is

a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate
b) CTAB complex with proteins and form precipitate
c) CTAB complex with polysaccharides and form precipitate
d) CTAB complex with secondary metabolites and form precipitate

Answer: a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate

5. Which of the following reagents are used for precipitating DNA

a) isopropanol
b) ethanol
c) both a and b
d) none of these

Answer: c) both a and b

6. The action of EDTA in EDTA-lysozyme treatment in bacterial DNA extraction is

a) removes Mg+ ions essential for maintenance of bacterial cell wall structure
b) inhibits degradation of DNA by cellular enzymes
c) removes outer lipopolusaccharide layer of Gram negative bacteria
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

7. Phenol used in DNA extraction 

a) precipitates DNA and leave proteins in aqueous solution
b) precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
c) precipitates cell debris and leave nucleic acids-protein complex in aqueous solution
d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution

Answer: d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution

8. In cell extracts with high protein content, before phenol treatment

a) chloroform is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
b) SDS is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
d) all of these

Answer: c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments

9. Which of the following reagent is used for quantifying DNA

a) chloroform
b) CTAB
c) Diphenylamine
d) dansyl chloride

Answer: c) Diphenylamine

10. Which of the following is in the correct order regarding DNA extraction

a) RNAase treatment->Protease treatment->Cell lysis-> ethanol precipitation
b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol precipitation
c) Cell lysis-> RNAase treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation
d) Cell lysis-> phenol treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation

Answer: b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol precipitation

15 MCQ on Biotechnology - Cloning Vectors

1. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate in an appropriate host cell, to which the desired gene are integrated for cloning, is called as

a) Plasmid

b) linker

c) vector

d) adapter

Answer: c. vector

2. Which of the following statement is true

a) a vector should have an origin of replication

b) a vector should have selectable markers

c) a vector should have unique restriction sites

d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

3. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having

a) an origin of replication

b) suitable marker genes

c) unique restriction sites

d) control elements

Answer: d) control elements

4. Extra chromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria which is widely used as vector is called

a) phagemid

b) cosmid

c) plasmid

d) bacterial vectors

Answer: c) plasmid

5. The first engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322

b) pUC vectors

c) pSC101

d) pUC 19

Answer: c) pSC101

6. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322

b) pUC vectors

c) pSC101

d) pUC 19

Answer: a) pBR 322

7. In pBR 322, pBR stands for

a) plasmid bacterial recombination

b) plasmid bacterial replication

c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

d) plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez

Answer: c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

8. Phage M13 vectors are widely used for

a) obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

b) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

c) obtaining fragments of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

d) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for electrophoresis

Answer: a) obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

9. Cosmid is a plasmid with

a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

b) a minimum of 250 bp of M13 DNA that includes cos site

c) a minimum of 100 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

d) a minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos site

Answer: a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

10. Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called

a) phasmids

b) transfer vectors

c) shuttle vectors

d) phagemids

Answer: c.) shuttle vectors

11. Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of

a) plasmid vectors

b) phage vectors

c) E.coli vectors

d) yeast vectors

Answer: d) yeast vectors

12. Which of the following are vectors for animals

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

b) CMV vectors and Gemini vectors

c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors

d) all of the above

Answer: a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

13. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome

a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)

b) plasmid

c) CMV vectors

d) M13 vectors

Answer: a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC

14. Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from

a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes

c) Agrobacterium radiobactor

d) Thermus aquaticus

Answer: a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

15. The most common vectors for plants are

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors

c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors

d) T4 phage vectors

Answer: b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors

MCQ on Biotechnology and Its Applications

1. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait. 

a) Insect resistance
b) High protein content
c) High vitamin A content
d) High lysine content

Answer: c) High vitamin A content

2. DNA fingerprinting refer to 

a) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals
b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
c) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
d) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

Answer: b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

3. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlet by tissue culture method is called 

a) Plantlet culture
b) Micropropagation
c) Organ culture
d)Macropropagation

Answer: b) Micropropagation

4. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of 

a) Insulin
b) Interferons
c) Edible proteins
d) Vaccines

Answer: d) Vaccines

5. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to 

a) Organogenesis
b) Cellular totipotency
c) Double fertilization
d) Test tube culture

Answer: b) Cellular totipotency

6. What is true for monoclonal antibodies? 

a) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
b) These obtained from many parents and for many antigens
c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
d) These obtained from one parent and for many antigens

Answer: c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen

7. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are 

a) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
b)Rhizobium and Diplococcus
c) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Answer: d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

8. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of 

a) Trichoderma
b) Bacillus
c) Xanthomonas
d) Pseudomonas

Answer: d) Pseudomonas

9. Probiotics are 

a) cancer inducing microbes
b) safe antibiotics
c) new kind of food allergens
d) live microbial food supplement

Answer: d) live microbial food supplement

10. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue culture the best method is 

a) meristem culture
b) protoplast culture
c) anther culture
d) embryo rescue

Answer: a) meristem culture

MCQ on Animal Biotechnology

1. Animal biotechnology involves

a) production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology
b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
c) alteration of genes to make it more desirable
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

2. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of 

a) insulin
b) somatostatin
c) mabs
d) thyroxine

Answer: c) mabs

3. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was

a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Influenza vaccine
c) Small pox vaccine
d) Polio vaccine

Answer: d) Polio vaccine

4. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures

a) Interferon
b) mab
c) vaccines
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

5. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was

a) Primate kidney cell line
b) CHO cell line
c) Dog kidney cell line
d) mouse fibroblast cell line

Answer: a) Primate kidney cell line

6. Recombinant proteins are

a) proteins synthesized in animals
b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology
c) proteins synthesised in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion
d) proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines

Answer: b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology

7. Interferons are 

a) anti bacterial proteins
b) anti-viral proteins
c) bacteriostatic proteins
d) all of these

Answer: b) anti-viral proteins

8. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon is 

a) Corona virus
b) Sendai virus
c) Polio virus
d) Small pox virus

Answer: b) Sendai virus

9. Hybrid antibodies are 

a) antibodies produced in cell cultures
b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures
c) antibodies produced in invivo
d) both a and b

Answer: b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures

10. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production of animals with a desirable genotype is 

a) protoplast fusion and embryo transfer
b) hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
d) all of these

Answer: c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer

11. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called

a) gene cloning
b) animal cloning
c) cell cloning
d) all of these

Answer: b) animal cloning

12. The first successfully cloned animal was

a) monkey
b) gibbon
c) sheep
d) rabbit

Answer: c) sheep

13. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was popularly called as 

a) in vitro babies
b) test tube babies
c) invitro-invivo babies
d) all of these

Answer: b) test tube babies

MCQ on Agricultural Biotechnology

1. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are

a)Rhizobium and Azotobacter
b)Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla
c)Escherichia and Agrobacterium
d)Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer: c) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

2. Transposon is known as 

a)IS element
b)Jumping gene
c)conservative gene
d)co integrate gene

Answer: b) Jumping gene

3. The uptake of plasmid DNA into the bacterial cell is facilitated by the presence of --- in the medium 

a) Calcium Chloride
b) Potassium chloride
c) Magnesium chloride
d) none of these

Answer: a) Calcium Chloride

4. The travel of gene expression and gene activation can be measured using which of the following? 

a) Reporter gene
b) Marker gene
c)Gene sequences
d)Promoter element

Answer: b) Marker gene

5. The enzyme required to obtained wall free/ nacked protoplasts are 

a) cellulase and proteinase
b) cellulase and pectinase
c) cellulase and amylase
d) amylase and pectinase

Answer: b) cellulase and pectinase

6. A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through 

a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) exponential phase
d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M)

Answer: d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M

7. DNA molecules, identical except for different numbers of superhelical turns are called 

a) Chain isomers
b) Topoisomers
c) Helical isomers
d) Geometrical isomers

Answer: b) Topoisomers

8. Application of embryo culture is in 

a) clonal propagation
b) Production of alkaloids
c) Production of soma clonal variation
d)overcoming hybridisation barrier

Answer: d) overcoming hybridisation barrier

9. Haploid culture are got from 

a) leaves
b) root tips
c) pollen grain
d) bud

Answer: c) pollen grain

10. Differentiation of shoot in plant tissue culture is controlled by 

a)high auxin : cytokinin ratio
b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
c) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio

Answer: b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio